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\( 6 \frac { 1 } { 4 } qt = \quad pt \)

Ask by Thornton Mccoy. in the United States
Feb 26,2025

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Tutor-Verified Answer

Answer

\( 6 \frac{1}{4} \) quarts is equal to 12.5 pints.

Solution

To convert \( 6 \frac{1}{4} \) quarts to pints, we need to know the conversion factor between quarts and pints. 1 quart is equal to 2 pints. Now, let's convert \( 6 \frac{1}{4} \) quarts to pints step by step. 1. First, convert the mixed number \( 6 \frac{1}{4} \) to an improper fraction: \[ 6 \frac{1}{4} = 6 + \frac{1}{4} = \frac{24}{4} + \frac{1}{4} = \frac{25}{4} \] 2. Now, multiply the improper fraction by the conversion factor (2 pints per quart): \[ \frac{25}{4} \times 2 = \frac{25 \times 2}{4} = \frac{50}{4} \] 3. Simplify \( \frac{50}{4} \): \[ \frac{50}{4} = 12.5 \] Thus, \( 6 \frac{1}{4} \) quarts is equal to \( 12.5 \) pints. Therefore, the final answer is: \[ 6 \frac{1}{4} \text{ qt} = 12.5 \text{ pt} \]

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The Deep Dive

To convert quarts to pints, we can use the conversion factor that 1 quart equals 2 pints. So, first, we'll convert \( 6 \frac{1}{4} \) quarts into an improper fraction, which is \( \frac{25}{4} \) quarts. Now, multiplying by the conversion factor: \[ \frac{25}{4} \text{ qt} \times 2 \text{ pt/qt} = \frac{50}{4} \text{ pt} = 12.5 \text{ pt} \] So, \( 6 \frac{1}{4} \) quarts equals 12.5 pints. Now you know how to convert quarts into pints!

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