3. Buktikan \( \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i m \theta} e^{-i n \theta} d \theta=\left\{\begin{array}{c}0, m \neq n \\ 2 \pi, m=n\end{array}\right. \)
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Untuk membuktikan integral tersebut, kita mulai dengan menyederhanakan ekspresi yang ada di dalam integral: \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i m \theta} e^{-i n \theta} d \theta = \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i (m-n) \theta} d \theta. \] Mari kita sebut \( k = m - n \). Maka kita perlu menghitung: \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i k \theta} d \theta. \] Jika \( k \neq 0 \) (atau \( m \neq n \)), kita memiliki: \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i k \theta} d \theta = \left[ \frac{e^{i k \theta}}{i k} \right]_{0}^{2 \pi} = \frac{1}{i k} \left( e^{i k (2\pi)} - e^{i k (0)} \right) = \frac{1}{i k} \left( e^{i k (2\pi)} - 1 \right). \] Karena \( e^{i k (2\pi)} = \cos(k \cdot 2\pi) + i \sin(k \cdot 2\pi) = 1 \), maka: \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i k \theta} d \theta = \frac{1}{i k} (1 - 1) = 0. \] Sedangkan jika \( k = 0 \) (atau \( m = n \)), kita mendapatkan: \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i (m-n) \theta} d \theta = \int_{0}^{2 \pi} d\theta = 2\pi. \] Dengan demikian, kita mendapatkan: \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i m \theta} e^{-i n \theta} d \theta = \begin{cases} 0, & m \neq n \\ 2\pi, & m = n \end{cases}. \] Bukti ini selesai!