Question

3. Buktikan \( \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i m \theta} e^{-i n \theta} d \theta=\left\{\begin{array}{c}0, m \neq n \\ 2 \pi, m=n\end{array}\right. \)

Ask by Ellis Edwards. in Indonesia
Mar 17,2025

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Answer

The integral \( \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i m \theta} e^{-i n \theta} d \theta \) equals \( 2 \pi \) when \( m = n \) and 0 when \( m \neq n \).

Solution

To prove the integral \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i m \theta} e^{-i n \theta} d \theta = \left\{ \begin{array}{c} 0, \quad m \neq n \\ 2 \pi, \quad m = n \end{array} \right. \] we can start by simplifying the integrand. 1. **Combine the Exponents:** The integrand can be rewritten as: \[ e^{i m \theta} e^{-i n \theta} = e^{i (m - n) \theta} \] Thus, the integral becomes: \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i (m - n) \theta} d \theta \] 2. **Evaluate the Integral:** We will evaluate the integral based on the value of \( m - n \). - **Case 1: \( m = n \)** If \( m = n \), then \( m - n = 0 \), and we have: \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{0} d \theta = \int_{0}^{2 \pi} 1 \, d \theta = 2 \pi \] - **Case 2: \( m \neq n \)** If \( m \neq n \), then \( m - n \) is a non-zero integer. The integral becomes: \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i (m - n) \theta} d \theta \] The integral of \( e^{i k \theta} \) over one full period (from \( 0 \) to \( 2\pi \)) is zero for any integer \( k \neq 0 \): \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i k \theta} d \theta = 0 \quad \text{for } k \neq 0 \] Therefore, since \( m - n \neq 0 \), we have: \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i (m - n) \theta} d \theta = 0 \] 3. **Conclusion:** Combining both cases, we conclude that: \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i m \theta} e^{-i n \theta} d \theta = \left\{ \begin{array}{c} 0, \quad m \neq n \\ 2 \pi, \quad m = n \end{array} \right. \] This completes the proof.

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Untuk membuktikan integral tersebut, kita mulai dengan menyederhanakan ekspresi yang ada di dalam integral: \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i m \theta} e^{-i n \theta} d \theta = \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i (m-n) \theta} d \theta. \] Mari kita sebut \( k = m - n \). Maka kita perlu menghitung: \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i k \theta} d \theta. \] Jika \( k \neq 0 \) (atau \( m \neq n \)), kita memiliki: \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i k \theta} d \theta = \left[ \frac{e^{i k \theta}}{i k} \right]_{0}^{2 \pi} = \frac{1}{i k} \left( e^{i k (2\pi)} - e^{i k (0)} \right) = \frac{1}{i k} \left( e^{i k (2\pi)} - 1 \right). \] Karena \( e^{i k (2\pi)} = \cos(k \cdot 2\pi) + i \sin(k \cdot 2\pi) = 1 \), maka: \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i k \theta} d \theta = \frac{1}{i k} (1 - 1) = 0. \] Sedangkan jika \( k = 0 \) (atau \( m = n \)), kita mendapatkan: \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i (m-n) \theta} d \theta = \int_{0}^{2 \pi} d\theta = 2\pi. \] Dengan demikian, kita mendapatkan: \[ \int_{0}^{2 \pi} e^{i m \theta} e^{-i n \theta} d \theta = \begin{cases} 0, & m \neq n \\ 2\pi, & m = n \end{cases}. \] Bukti ini selesai!

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