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Consider the proportion of "successes" \( \hat{p}=\frac{27}{28} \). (a) In fraction form, what is the proportion of failures, \( (1-\hat{p}) \) ? (b) Choose the correct inequality to compare the two proportions.

Ask by Curry Hall. in the United States
Mar 15,2025

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(a) The proportion of failures is \( \frac{1}{28} \). (b) The correct inequality is \( \frac{27}{28} > \frac{1}{28} \).

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The proportion of failures can be calculated by subtracting the proportion of successes from 1. So, we have \( 1 - \hat{p} = 1 - \frac{27}{28} = \frac{1}{28} \). This means that the proportion of failures is \( \frac{1}{28} \). When comparing the two proportions \( \hat{p} \) and \( (1 - \hat{p}) \), we find that \( \hat{p} = \frac{27}{28} \) is greater than \( (1 - \hat{p}) = \frac{1}{28} \). Therefore, the correct inequality is \( \hat{p} > (1 - \hat{p}) \). In summary, the proportion of failures is \( \frac{1}{28} \) and \( \hat{p} > (1 - \hat{p}) \).

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