13. Multiple Choice 1 point Determine if the integral diverges or converges. Evaluate the integral if it converges. \( \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{e^{+}} d x \) \( \pi / 2 \) \( \pi / 4 \) This integral diverges. \( \pi \)
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The Deep Dive
First, let’s clarify the integral in question: it seems like there’s a small typo with \( e^{+} \). If you meant \( e^x \), the integral becomes \( \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{e^{x}} dx \), which converges. To evaluate it, you can compute it as follows: \[ \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-x} dx = \left[-e^{-x}\right]_{0}^{\infty} = 0 + 1 = 1. \] So this integral does converge to 1! Now, if you were working with \( \frac{1}{e} \) in your integral, the integrand would be constant. When integrating from 0 to infinity, it would diverge since \(\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{e} dx\) is an infinite area. Wouldn't it be awesome if all confusing integrals led to such straightforward answers? They often don't, but that's what keeps the math world spinning! For extra practice, try considering other functions over infinite intervals, like \( \frac{1}{x^2} \) and see how convergence can change based on the exponent. Also, don't forget to brush up on the comparison test, a handy tool for determining whether an improper integral converges or diverges by comparing to a known integral!