Are the following functions inverses? \( \begin{array}{l}f(x)=4 x-2 \\ g(x)=\frac{x}{4}+2 \\ \text { No, they are not inverses } \\ \text { Yes, they are inverses }\end{array} \)
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To determine if \(f(x)\) and \(g(x)\) are inverses, we need to check if \(f(g(x)) = x\) and \(g(f(x)) = x\). When we substitute \(g(x)\) into \(f(x)\), we get: \[ f(g(x)) = f\left(\frac{x}{4} + 2\right) = 4\left(\frac{x}{4} + 2\right) - 2 = x + 8 - 2 = x + 6. \] Since \(f(g(x))\) does not equal \(x\), they are not inverses. Now, let's check the other direction: \[ g(f(x)) = g(4x - 2) = \frac{4x - 2}{4} + 2 = x - \frac{1}{2} + 2 = x + \frac{3}{2}. \] Again, this does not equal \(x\), confirming that \(f(x)\) and \(g(x)\) are not inverses of each other. So the answer is: No, they are not inverses.