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13 Multiple Choice 1 point Determine if the integral diverges or converges. Evaluate the integral if it converges. \( \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{e^{x}+e^{-x}} d x \)

Ask by Johnston Turner. in the United States
Feb 26,2025

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Answer

The integral converges and its value is π⁄4.

Solution

We start with the integral   I = ∫₀∞ 1/(eˣ + e^(–x)) dx. Step 1. Rewrite the Integrand Notice that   eˣ + e^(–x) = 2 cosh x. Thus, the integrand becomes   1/(eˣ + e^(–x)) = 1/(2 cosh x) = (1/2) sech x. So the integral becomes   I = (1/2) ∫₀∞ sech x dx. Step 2. Evaluate ∫₀∞ sech x dx A known antiderivative for sech x is:   ∫ sech x dx = 2 arctan (tanh(x/2)) + C. To evaluate the definite integral from 0 to ∞, compute: At x → ∞:   tanh(x/2) → 1  ⟹  arctan(1) = π/4, so   2 arctan (tanh(x/2)) → 2(π/4) = π/2. At x = 0:   tanh(0) = 0  ⟹  arctan(0) = 0, so   2 arctan (tanh(0/2)) = 0. Thus,   ∫₀∞ sech x dx = (π/2) – 0 = π/2. Step 3. Compute the Final Answer Returning to I, we have:   I = (1/2) * (π/2) = π/4. Conclusion The given integral converges and its value is π/4.

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The Deep Dive

To evaluate the integral \[ \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{e^{x}+e^{-x}} d x, \] we can simplify the integrand first. Notice that \[ e^{x} + e^{-x} = 2 \cosh(x), \] thus, we can rewrite the integral as: \[ \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2 \cosh(x)} d x = \frac{1}{2} \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\cosh(x)} d x. \] Next, we can evaluate \( \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\cosh(x)} d x \). The integral \[ \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\cosh(x)} d x \] is known to converge, and its value is \( \frac{\pi}{2} \). Therefore, we can conclude: \[ \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\cosh(x)} d x = \frac{\pi}{2} \implies \frac{1}{2} \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\cosh(x)} d x = \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{\pi}{2} = \frac{\pi}{4}. \] Thus, the original integral converges, and the value is \[ \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{e^{x}+e^{-x}} d x = \frac{\pi}{4}. \]

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