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Mildred has a bag of coins. The bag contains 10 dimes, 5 nickels, and 1 penny. She will randomly select 2 coins from the bag one at a time without replacement. What is the probability that Mildred will select a dime first and then a penny? A \( \frac{83}{120} \) B \( \frac{11}{16} \) C \( \frac{5}{128} \) D \( \frac{1}{24} \)

Ask by Barrett Murphy. in the United States
Feb 26,2025

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Answer

The probability is \( \frac{1}{24} \), so the answer is D.

Solution

There are 10 dimes, 5 nickels, and 1 penny, so a total of 16 coins. Step 1: The probability of drawing a dime first is 10/16. Step 2: After removing one dime, there are 15 coins left, and the only penny remains. So, the probability of drawing the penny second is 1/15. Multiply the probabilities: (10/16) × (1/15) = 10/240 = 1/24 Thus, the probability that Mildred will select a dime first and then a penny is 1/24, which corresponds to option D.

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To find the probability that Mildred will select a dime first and then a penny, we can break down the problem into two steps. 1. The probability of selecting a dime first: There are 10 dimes and 16 total coins (10 dimes + 5 nickels + 1 penny). So, the probability of selecting a dime first is \( \frac{10}{16} \) or \( \frac{5}{8} \). 2. The probability of selecting a penny second: After removing one dime, there are now 15 total coins left (9 dimes + 5 nickels + 1 penny). The probability of selecting a penny next is \( \frac{1}{15} \). The overall probability is the product of these two probabilities: \[ \frac{5}{8} \times \frac{1}{15} = \frac{5}{120} = \frac{1}{24}. \] Therefore, the answer is D \( \frac{1}{24} \).

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