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(c) \( \cos ^{2} A\left[\frac{1}{\sin A-1}+\frac{1}{\sin A+1}\right]=-2 \sin A \)

Ask by Turnbull Munoz. in South Africa
Feb 25,2025

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Answer

cos²A [1/(sinA – 1) + 1/(sinA + 1)] equals –2 sinA.

Solution

We want to show that   cos²A [1/(sinA – 1) + 1/(sinA + 1)] = –2 sinA. Step 1. Simplify the expression inside the brackets:   1/(sinA – 1) + 1/(sinA + 1) To add the fractions, combine them over a common denominator:   = [ (sinA + 1) + (sinA – 1) ] / [(sinA – 1)(sinA + 1)]   = (2 sinA) / (sin²A – 1) Step 2. Recall the Pythagorean identity:   sin²A + cos²A = 1  ⟹  sin²A – 1 = –cos²A Thus, the expression becomes:   = (2 sinA) / (–cos²A)   = –(2 sinA) / cos²A Step 3. Multiply by cos²A (as in the original expression):   cos²A * [–(2 sinA)/cos²A] = –2 sinA This confirms that   cos²A [1/(sinA – 1) + 1/(sinA + 1)] = –2 sinA. Note: The expression is valid provided that sinA ≠ 1 and sinA ≠ –1 (to avoid division by zero).

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To delve into the equation \( \cos^{2} A\left[\frac{1}{\sin A-1}+\frac{1}{\sin A+1}\right]=-2 \sin A \), we can first simplify the expression on the left side. This part reduces to \( \cos^{2} A \cdot \frac{(\sin A+1) + (\sin A-1)}{(\sin A-1)(\sin A+1)} = \cos^{2} A \cdot \frac{2\sin A}{1 - \sin^2 A} = \cos^{2} A \cdot \frac{2\sin A}{\cos^{2} A} = 2 \sin A \). Now we have \( 2 \sin A = -2 \sin A \), which leads to \( 4 \sin A = 0 \). This means \( \sin A = 0 \). Consequently, the solutions to this equation are \( A = n\pi \) for \( n \in \mathbb{Z} \). To visualize this, consider plotting the sine function; it crosses the x-axis (where \( \sin A = 0 \)) at integers multiples of \( \pi \), radiating outwards like ripples in a pond!

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