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12. \( \int_{-\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\left(x^{3}+x^{4} \tan x\right) d x= \) (a) 0 (b) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \) (c) \( -\frac{\pi}{2} \) (d) \( \tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right) \) (e) \( \left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)^{4} \tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right) \)

Ask by Hill Mccarthy. in Saudi Arabia
Feb 19,2025

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Tutor-Verified Answer

Answer

The integral of \( x^{3} + x^{4} \tan x \) from \( -\frac{\pi}{4} \) to \( \frac{\pi}{4} \) is 0 because both terms are odd functions, and the integral of an odd function over a symmetric interval is zero.

Solution

The key observation here is that both functions in the integrand are odd functions. Here's the step‐by‐step reasoning: 1. The first term, x³, is an odd function, because (–x)³ = –x³. 2. For the second term, note that x⁴ is even (since (–x)⁴ = x⁴) and tan x is odd (because tan(–x) = –tan x). The product of an even and an odd function is odd. 3. The integral of any odd function over an interval symmetric about zero (i.e., from –a to a) is 0. Since both x³ and x⁴ tan x are odd, their integrals over [–π/4, π/4] are 0. Therefore, the answer is (a) 0.

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To solve the integral \( \int_{-\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\left(x^{3}+x^{4} \tan x\right) d x \), we can analyze the integrand's symmetry properties. The function \( x^3 \) is an odd function, meaning it has the property that \( f(-x) = -f(x) \). Therefore, the integral of an odd function over a symmetric interval around zero (like \(-\frac{\pi}{4}\) to \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)) is zero. Conversely, \( x^4 \tan x \) is an even function, as it satisfies \( f(-x) = f(x) \). However, since the integral of the odd part \( x^3 \) contributes zero, we can conclude that the full integral evaluates to: \[ \int_{-\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} (x^3 + x^4 \tan x) \, dx = 0 + \int_{-\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} x^4 \tan x \, dx \] But since the integral of \( x^3 \) is zero, the resulting integral remains \( 0 \). Therefore, the answer is: (a) 0

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