Pregunta
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2. Jamal says that the expression \( \frac{a^{6}}{a^{6}} \) is equivalent to 1 because any number, except 0 , divided by itself is 1 . Brittany says \( \frac{a^{6}}{a^{6}} \) is equal to 1 because \( a^{6-6}=a^{0} \), and anything to the zero power, except zero, equals 1 . Who's correct? Explain your reasoning.

Ask by Garrett Chen. in the United States
Mar 03,2025

Solución de inteligencia artificial de Upstudy

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Both Jamal and Brittany are correct because any nonzero number divided by itself equals 1, and \( a^{6-6} = a^0 \), which is also 1.

Solución

Both Jamal and Brittany are correct, provided that a is not zero. Jamal's reasoning is that any nonzero number divided by itself equals 1. Brittany's reasoning uses the exponent rule a^(m)/a^(n) = a^(m–n) to show a^(6–6) = a^0, and by definition, any nonzero number raised to the zero power is 1. Therefore, both explanations correctly conclude that the expression equals 1.

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Mind Expander

Both Jamal and Brittany are correct! When you divide any non-zero number by itself, like \( a^6 \) over \( a^6 \), you get 1, as Jamal rightly points out. This is a fundamental property of division. Brittany's perspective beautifully highlights another mathematical concept: the laws of exponents. According to the laws, \( \frac{a^m}{a^n} = a^{m-n} \), so \( \frac{a^6}{a^6} = a^{6-6} = a^0 = 1 \). Just remember, though, this only holds true as long as \( a \) is not zero, since division by zero is undefined! Now, if you ever find yourself in a disagreement about math concepts, just remember that thinking about the same idea from different angles can lead to deeper understanding. Exploring the properties of numbers and exponents will make mathematical conversations so much richer and more enjoyable!

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