Prove the identities. \( 1 \quad \sin x \cdot \cos x \cdot \tan x=1-\cos ^{2} x \) \( 2 \quad \cos ^{3} x+\cos x \cdot \sin ^{2} x=\cos x \) \( 3 \quad(\sin x+\cos x)^{2}+(\sin x-\cos x)^{2}=2 \) \( 4 \quad\left(1-\sin ^{2} x\right)\left(1+\tan ^{2} x\right)=1 \) \( 5 \quad \frac{1}{\sin x}-\sin x=\frac{\cos x}{\tan x} \) \( 6 \quad \frac{\cos x-\cos ^{3} x}{\cos x-\cos x \cdot \sin ^{2} x}=\tan ^{2} x \) \( 7 \quad \frac{\sin \theta}{\tan \theta}-\sqrt{1-\sin ^{2} \theta}=0 \) \( 8 \quad \tan ^{2} \theta+1=\frac{1}{\cos ^{2} \theta} \)
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To prove the first identity, we start with the left side: \(\sin x \cdot \cos x \cdot \tan x = \sin x \cdot \cos x \cdot \frac{\sin x}{\cos x} = \sin^2 x\). Now, using the Pythagorean identity, \(1 - \cos^2 x = \sin^2 x\), we find that \(\sin^2 x = 1 - \cos^2 x\), thus confirming the identity. For the second identity, let's simplify the left side: \(\cos^3 x + \cos x \cdot \sin^2 x = \cos x (\cos^2 x + \sin^2 x)\). Using the Pythagorean identity again, \(\cos^2 x + \sin^2 x = 1\), we have \(\cos x (1) = \cos x\), proving this identity as well!
